Has it come to this? In a typical statement, the authors write that in Elizabethan England a certain kind of marriage contract made for the future "became permanently, legally binding if the couple then consummated the marriage (i.e. had sex)" (p. 50). Hopkins and Steggle both teach at universities in the UK, and so I fear that it is primarily British students who, the authors believe, need a gloss on the consummation of a marriage. Well, American students probably can't be far behind. I'm not sure whether this book is dumbed down or accurately targeted at a dumb audience.